EASA Part 66 : Aircraft aerodynamic, structure and system module 11

EASA Part 66 : Aircraft aerodynamic, structure and system
Module 11. Aeroplane Aerodynamics, Structures & Systems


11.01.1. Theory
 of Flight - Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls.


Question Number.    1.    As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure.      
Option A.    moves forward.  
Option B.    moves aft.  
Option C.    is unaffected.  
Correct Answer is.    moves aft.  
Explanation.    Assuming that the aircraft is to remain at constant altitude, it must reduce its angle of attack as it speeds-up. This alone will move the CofP rearwards, in accordance with the sub-sonic angle of attack change theory.      


Question Number.    2.    Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with.      
Option A.    ailerons.  
Option B.    rudder.  
Option C.    elevators.  
Correct Answer is.    ailerons.  
Explanation.    Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 51. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe TextbookPage 1-12.      


Question Number.    3.    If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?.      
Option A.    To the centre.  
Option B.    To the right.  
Option C.    To the left.  
Correct Answer is.    To the left.  
Explanation.    Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43.      


Question Number.    4.    If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?.      
Option A.    Down.  
Option B.    Up.  
Option C.    Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation.  
Correct Answer is.    Up.  
Explanation.    Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43.      


Question Number.    5.    When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?.      
Option A.    To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts.  
Option B.    To re-energise the boundary layer.  
Option C.    To increase the lift.  
Correct Answer is.    To re-energise the boundary layer.  
Explanation.    Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 50. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-32.      


Question Number.    6.    With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?.      
Option A.    The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron.  
Option B.    The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle.  
Option C.    The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.  
Correct Answer is.    The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.  
Explanation.    Mechanics of Flight, Kermode, Page 301. The down going aileron moves less, to reduce the induced drag which causes adverse aileron yaw.      


Question Number.    7.    The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load.      
Option A.    if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.  
Option B.    only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw.  
Option C.    only when the rudder is moved.  
Correct Answer is.    if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.  
Explanation.    Rudder deflection or yaw.      


Question Number.    8.    An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit would be.      
Option A.    moved up causing the left aileron to move up.  
Option B.    moved up causing the left aileron to move down.  
Option C.    moved down causing the left aileron to move down.  
Correct Answer is.    moved up causing the left aileron to move down.  
Explanation.    Down aileron required - which requires up trim.      


Question Number.    9.    The purpose of a slot in a wing is to.      
Option A.    speed up the airflow and increase lift.  
Option B.    act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.  
Option C.    provide housing for the slat.  
Correct Answer is.    act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.  
Explanation.    A slot is to act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.      


Question Number.    10.    Large flap deployment.      
Option A.    has no effect on spanwise flow.  
Option B.    causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface.  
Option C.    causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface.  
Correct Answer is.    causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface.  
Explanation.    Flaps increase the pressure differential between top and bottom surfaces, increase tip vortices and spanwise flow.      


Question Number.    11.    Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?.      
Option A.    Tip stalls first.  
Option B.    Root stalls first.  
Option C.    Both stall together.  
Correct Answer is.    Tip stalls first.  
Explanation.    The tip of a swept wing stalls first.      


Question Number.    12.    During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly.      
Option A.    right wing low.  
Option B.    nose up.  
Option C.    left wing low.  
Correct Answer is.    right wing low.  
Explanation.    The leading wing (left wing) has increased lift, causing it to rise.      


Question Number.    13.    With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will.      
Option A.    not be affected.  
Option B.    lower.  
Option C.    rise.  
Correct Answer is.    rise.  
Explanation.    As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance increases.      


Question Number.    14.    Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?.      
Option A.    Increase the angle of attack.  
Option B.    Decrease the angle of attack.  
Option C.    No effect on angle of attack.  
Correct Answer is.    Decrease the angle of attack.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    15.    To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are.      
Option A.    installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.  
Option B.    installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.  
Option C.    installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.  
Correct Answer is.    installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    16.    With reference to differential aileron control.      
Option A.    drag increases on the inner wing.  
Option B.    drag decreases on the outer wing.  
Option C.    drag increases on the outer wing.  
Correct Answer is.    drag increases on the inner wing.  
Explanation.    Automatic Flight Control, Pallett 4th Edition Page 41. A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-11.      


Question Number.    17.    Dutch role is movement in.      
Option A.    yaw and roll.  
Option B.    yaw and pitch.  
Option C.    pitch and roll.  
Correct Answer is.    yaw and roll.  
Explanation.    Avionic Fundamentals Jeppesen page 291.      


Question Number.    18.    If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable.      
Option A.    aircraft becomes too sensitive.  
Option B.    aircraft returns to trimmed attitude.  
Option C.    C of P moves back.  
Correct Answer is.    aircraft returns to trimmed attitude.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    19.    Ailerons control the aircraft in the.      
Option A.    longitudinal plane.  
Option B.    directional plane.  
Option C.    lateral plane.  
Correct Answer is.    lateral plane.  
Explanation.    Ailerons control the aircraft 'IN' the lateral axis, which is 'ABOUT' the longitudinal axis.      


Question Number.    20.    An anti-balance tab is used.      
Option A.    for trimming the aircraft.  
Option B.    to give more feel to the controls.  
Option C.    to relieve stick loads.  
Correct Answer is.    to give more feel to the controls.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-29.      


Question Number.    21.    Slats.      
Option A.    act as an air brake.  
Option B.    keep the boundary layer from separating for longer.  
Option C.    increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing.  
Correct Answer is.    keep the boundary layer from separating for longer.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A & P technician airframe textbook page 1-32.      


Question Number.    22.    Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight.      
Option A.    nose should be lowered, reducing AoA.  
Option B.    nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA.  
Option C.    nose should be raised, increasing AoA.  
Correct Answer is.    nose should be lowered, reducing AoA.  
Explanation.    The main purpose of flaps is to increase lift so that the pilot can lower the nose, increase decent angle and get a better view of the runway.      


Question Number.    23.    Flight spoilers.      
Option A.    can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed.  
Option B.    can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing.  
Option C.    can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn.  
Correct Answer is.    can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    24.    If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?.      
Option A.    Up to move elevator up.  
Option B.    Down to move elevator up.  
Option C.    Up to move elevator down.  
Correct Answer is.    Down to move elevator up.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    25.    Wing tip vortices are strongest when.      
Option A.    flying high speed straight and level flight.  
Option B.    flying slowly at high angles of attack.  
Option C.    flying into a headwind.  
Correct Answer is.    flying slowly at high angles of attack.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    26.    An example of a secondary flight control is a.      
Option A.    elevator.  
Option B.    flap.  
Option C.    spoiler.  
Correct Answer is.    spoiler.  
Explanation.    Some would consider a Flap to be a secondary flight control. It is discounted in this question as it is technically a Lift Augmentation Device, rather than a 'control.      


Question Number.    27.    A balance tab.      
Option A.    assists the pilot to move the controls.  
Option B.    is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft.  
Option C.    effectively increases the area of the control surface.  
Correct Answer is.    assists the pilot to move the controls.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook pg 1-29.      


Question Number.    28.    Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?.      
Option A.    Both wings have an equal increase in drag.  
Option B.    Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more.  
Option C.    Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more.  
Correct Answer is.    Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-26.      


Question Number.    29.    Which flap will increase wing area and camber?.      
Option A.    Split.  
Option B.    Slot.  
Option C.    Fowler.  
Correct Answer is.    Fowler.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 20.      


Question Number.    30.    An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is.      
Option A.    low.  
Option B.    high or low.  
Option C.    high.  
Correct Answer is.    high.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    31.    On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by.      
Option A.    left and right spoilers extending.  
Option B.    right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted.  
Option C.    left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted.  
Correct Answer is.    right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    32.    A split flap increases lift by increasing.      
Option A.    the surface area.  
Option B.    the camber of the top surface.  
Option C.    the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion.  
Correct Answer is.    the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30.      


Question Number.    33.    When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will.      
Option A.    sink.  
Option B.    pitch nose down.  
Option C.    pitch nose up.  
Correct Answer is.    pitch nose down.  
Explanation.    Due to the centre of pressure moving aft.      


Question Number.    34.    Dutch roll is.      
Option A.    a type of slow roll.  
Option B.    primarily a pitching instability.  
Option C.    a combined yawing and rolling motion.  
Correct Answer is.    a combined yawing and rolling motion.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    35.    On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is caused by.      
Option A.    increasing tailplane incidence.  
Option B.    decreasing tailplane incidence.  
Option C.    up movement of the elevator trim tab.  
Correct Answer is.    decreasing tailplane incidence.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    36.    A leading edge slat is a device for.      
Option A.    increasing the stalling angle of the wing.  
Option B.    decreasing wing drag.  
Option C.    decreasing the stalling angle of the wing.  
Correct Answer is.    increasing the stalling angle of the wing.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    37.    A Krueger flap is.      
Option A.    a leading edge slat which extends forward.  
Option B.    a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower.  
Option C.    a leading edge flap which hinges forward.  
Correct Answer is.    a leading edge flap which hinges forward.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 1-37 figure 1-64.      


Question Number.    38.    The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation to the rest of the airflow, is known as.      
Option A.    camber layer.  
Option B.    none of the above are correct.  
Option C.    boundary layer.  
Correct Answer is.    boundary layer.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    39.    When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases, what takes place?.      
Option A.    Pressure increases, lift decreases.  
Option B.    Pressure decreases, lift increases.  
Option C.    Pressure increases, lift increases.  
Correct Answer is.    Pressure increases, lift decreases.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    40.    What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?.      
Option A.    Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.  
Option B.    Aspect ratio.  
Option C.    Fineness ratio.  
Correct Answer is.    Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    41.    Changes in aircraft weight.      
Option A.    will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant.  
Option B.    will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed.  
Option C.    cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change.  
Correct Answer is.    cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    42.    When an aircraft stalls.      
Option A.    lift decreases and drag increases.  
Option B.    lift and drag increase.  
Option C.    lift and drag increase.  
Correct Answer is.    lift decreases and drag increases.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    43.    The aircraft stalling speed will.      
Option A.    increase with an increase in weight.  
Option B.    increase with an increase in weight.  
Option C.    be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack.  
Correct Answer is.    increase with an increase in weight.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    44.    In a bank and turn.      
Option A.    extra lift is not required.  
Option B.    extra lift is required.  
Option C.    extra lift is not required if thrust is increased.  
Correct Answer is.    extra lift is required.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    45.    The angle of attack at which stall occurs.      
Option A.    depends on the weight of the aircraft.  
Option B.    cannot be varied, it is always constant.  
Option C.    can be varied by using flaps and slats.  
Correct Answer is.    can be varied by using flaps and slats.  
Explanation.    NIL.        corrected


Question Number.    46.    The primary function of a flap is.      
Option A.    to alter the position of the centre of gravity.  
Option B.    to trim the aircraft longitudinally.  
Option C.    to alter the lift of an aerofoil.  
Correct Answer is.    to alter the lift of an aerofoil.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30.      


Question Number.    47.    The stalling speed of an aircraft.      
Option A.    is increased when it is lighter.  
Option B.    does not change.  
Option C.    is increased when it is heavier.  
Correct Answer is.    is increased when it is heavier.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    48.    A wing flap which has dropped or partially extended on one wing in flight will lead to.      
Option A.    a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons.  
Option B.    a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of the rudder.  
Option C.    a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the elevators.  
Correct Answer is.    a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    49.    With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a wing.      
Option A.    increases.  
Option B.    remains the same.  
Option C.    decreases.  
Correct Answer is.    decreases.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    50.    Downward displacement of an aileron.      
Option A.    decreases the angle at which its wing will stall.  
Option B.    increases the angle at which its wing stalls.  
Option C.    has no effect on its wing stalling angle, it only affects the stalling speed on that wing.  
Correct Answer is.    decreases the angle at which its wing will stall.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    51.    Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane.      
Option A.    may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load.  
Option B.    will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch.  
Option C.    will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch.  
Correct Answer is.    will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    52.    Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps, to maintain the lift constant it would be necessary to.      
Option A.    lower the nose.  
Option B.    keep the pitch attitude constant.  
Option C.    raise the nose.  
Correct Answer is.    lower the nose.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    53.    Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?.      
Option A.    Flap and slat.  
Option B.    Flap.  
Option C.    Slat.  
Correct Answer is.    Slat.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    54.    The tropopause exists at about.      
Option A.    18,000 ft.  
Option B.    36,000 ft.  
Option C.    30,000 ft.  
Correct Answer is.    36,000 ft.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    55.    Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is.      
Option A.    an increase in gradient with wing speed.  
Option B.    decrease in gradient with wing speed.  
Option C.    no change in gradient with wing speed.  
Correct Answer is.    decrease in gradient with wing speed.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    56.    If an aircraft is yawing left, the trim tab on the rudder would be positioned.      
Option A.    to the left, moving the rudder right.  
Option B.    to the centre.  
Option C.    to the right, moving the rudder left.  
Correct Answer is.    to the left, moving the rudder right.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    57.    Instability giving roll and yaw.      
Option A.    is longitudinal stability.  
Option B.    is lateral stability.  
Option C.    is dutch roll.  
Correct Answer is.    is dutch roll.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    58.    Vortex generators are fitted to.      
Option A.    move transition point forwards.  
Option B.    move transition point rearwards.  
Option C.    advance the onset of flow separation.  
Correct Answer is.    move transition point forwards.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    59.    Leading edge flaps.      
Option A.    decrease stalling angle of the wing.  
Option B.    do not change the stalling angle.  
Option C.    increase stalling angle of the wing.  
Correct Answer is.    increase stalling angle of the wing.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    60.    Krueger flaps are on.      
Option A.    the leading edge.  
Option B.    the trailing edge.  
Option C.    either the leading or training edge.  
Correct Answer is.    the leading edge.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    61.    Sweepback will.      
Option A.    increase lateral stability.  
Option B.    not affect lateral stability.  
Option C.    decrease lateral stability.  
Correct Answer is.    increase lateral stability.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    62.    A plain flap.      
Option A.    is attached to the leading edge of the wing.  
Option B.    forms part of lower trailing edge.  
Option C.    does not increase the wing area on deployment.  
Correct Answer is.    does not increase the wing area on deployment.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    63.    A split flap, when deployed.      
Option A.    increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down.  
Option B.    is used only on high speed aircraft.  
Option C.    increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag.  
Correct Answer is.    increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


11.2 Airframe Structures - General Concepts.


Question Number.    1.    Zone 320 under the ATA system is.      
Option A.    central fuselage.  
Option B.    vertical stabiliser.  
Option C.    horizontal stabiliser.  
Correct Answer is.    vertical stabiliser.  
Explanation.    Maintenance and Repair Kroes/Watkins/Delp Page 22.              


Question Number.    2.    When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is.      
Option A.    0.005ohms.  
Option B.    1/50 ohms.  
Option C.    50 milliohms.  
Correct Answer is.    50 milliohms.  
Explanation.    CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.8.              


Question Number.    3.    How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?.      
Option A.    Earthing Strap.  
Option B.    Bonding Strip.  
Option C.    Bonding Strip.  
Correct Answer is.    Bonding Strip.  
Explanation.    Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 343.              


Question Number.    4.    Tension is the stress of.      
Option A.    crush or compression.  
Option B.    elongating or stretch.  
Option C.    twisting.  
Correct Answer is.    elongating or stretch.  
Explanation.    Tension is the stress of elongation or stretch.              


Question Number.    5.    A Fuselage Station is a.      
Option A.    lateral point on aircraft wing.  
Option B.    lateral point on aircraft fuse.  
Option C.    longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage.  
Correct Answer is.    longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage.  
Explanation.    Fuselage Stations are longitudinal measurements on the fuselage.              


Question Number.    6.    Composite materials are bonded by.      
Option A.    aluminium wire.  
Option B.    special paint.  
Option C.    copper wire.  
Correct Answer is.    special paint.  
Explanation.    CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.4.4.              


Question Number.    7.    ATA Zone 100 is.      
Option A.    upper fuselage.  
Option B.    lower fuselage.  
Option C.    Wing.  
Correct Answer is.    lower fuselage.  
Explanation.    ATA Zone 100 is lower fuselage (below floor).              


Question Number.    8.    The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be.      
Option A.    0.5 in wide.  
Option B.    22 AWG.  
Option C.    0.25 in wide and 22 AWG.  
Correct Answer is.    0.5 in wide.  
Explanation.    CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para. 3.3.1 (a).              


Question Number.    9.    at force is an I-Beam subjected to?.      
Option A.    Tension.  
Option B.    Bending.  
Option C.    Shear.  
Correct Answer is.    Bending.  
Explanation.    An I beam is subject to Bending, although different parts of it are subject to tension (upper boom) and shear (the web).              


Question Number.    10.    A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by.      
Option A.    bonding strips.  
Option B.    special conductive grease.  
Option C.    conductive paint.  
Correct Answer is.    conductive paint.  
Explanation.    CAIPs RL/2-5 Para 3.5.              


Question Number.    11.    Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of.      
Option A.    frame stations, vertical lines and lateral lines.  
Option B.    longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines.  
Option C.    frame stations, water lines and buttock lines.  
Correct Answer is.    frame stations, water lines and buttock lines.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7-2 para 6.              


Question Number.    12.    Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?.      
Option A.    Spar.  
Option B.    Longeron.  
Option C.    Stringer.  
Correct Answer is.    Stringer.  
Explanation.    Answer chosen due to a stringer's duplicity.              


Question Number.    13.    Damage tolerant design.      
Option A.    is applied only to secondary structure.  
Option B.    allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance.  
Option C.    allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure.  
Correct Answer is.    allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    14.    In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of.      
Option A.    800.  
Option B.    600.  
Option C.    400.  
Correct Answer is.    800.  
Explanation.    Checkout most modern aircraft Maintenance Manuals for zonal locations.              


Question Number.    15.    Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?.      
Option A.    Control surfaces.  
Option B.    Pressure cabin.  
Option C.    Wings.  
Correct Answer is.    Pressure cabin.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7-2 2.7.              


Question Number.    16.    Shear stress is described as.      
Option A.    pulling forces.  
Option B.    compressing forces.  
Option C.    slip away under the action of forces.  
Correct Answer is.    slip away under the action of forces.  
Explanation.    The keyword is 'slip', but it is a terrible definition of shear stress.              


Question Number.    17.    The ground cable must be.      
Option A.    single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area.  
Option B.    copper stranded 0.5 in. cross sectional area.  
Option C.    single strand 18 AWG.  
Correct Answer is.    single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area.  
Explanation.    CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.3.1 a (i).              


Question Number.    18.    Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?.      
Option A.    245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing.  
Option B.    245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing.  
Option C.    245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing.  
Correct Answer is.    245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 15.              


Question Number.    19.    How is the radome protected from lightning strike?.      
Option A.    Special grease on the hinges.  
Option B.    Diverter strips.  
Option C.    Special paint.  
Correct Answer is.    Diverter strips.  
Explanation.    CAIPs RL/2-5 3.4.2.              


Question Number.    20.    If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together, what would the gauge read?.      
Option A.    Full scale deflection.  
Option B.    Centre scale.  
Option C.    Zero.  
Correct Answer is.    Zero.  
Explanation.    CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.10.2 B.              


Question Number.    21.    A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused, is known as.      
Option A.    strain.  
Option B.    shear.  
Option C.    shear.  
Correct Answer is.    strain.  
Explanation.    Strain is 'best' of the answers. Strain is 'deformation' but does not necessarily cause a permanent deformation.              


Question Number.    22.    Semi-monocoque construction.      
Option A.    utilizes the safe-life design concept.  
Option B.    is used only for the fuselage.  
Option C.    offers good damage resistance.  
Correct Answer is.    offers good damage resistance.  
Explanation.    Jepessen A & P Technician Airframe textbook page 1-3.              


Question Number.    23.    Most radio aerials are.      
Option A.    not bonded.  
Option B.    bonded.  
Option C.    insulated from the fuselage.  
Correct Answer is.    bonded.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-56.              


Question Number.    24.    Secondary bonding is usually provided with.      
Option A.    stranded copper 0.25 inch.  
Option B.    single strand 0.25 inch.  
Option C.    18 AWG.  
Correct Answer is.    18 AWG.  
Explanation.    CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (a) (ii).              


Question Number.    25.    Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a.      
Option A.    vertical line.  
Option B.    wing line.  
Option C.    horizontal line.  
Correct Answer is.    vertical line.  
Explanation.    AL/7.2 Page 6.2 Fig 15.              


Question Number.    26.    The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by.      
Option A.    bonding.  
Option B.    earthing.  
Option C.    static wicks.  
Correct Answer is.    bonding.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    27.    The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than.      
Option A.    18 SWG for a single wire.  
Option B.    22 SWG x 0.25.  
Option C.    22 SWG x 0.5.  
Correct Answer is.    18 SWG for a single wire.  
Explanation.    CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (ii).              


Question Number.    28.    What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?.      
Option A.    Pressure Cycles.  
Option B.    Flying Hours.  
Option C.    Landings.  
Correct Answer is.    Flying Hours.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    29.    The main forces on an aircraft structure are.      
Option A.    tension, compression, torsion and shear.  
Option B.    tension, compression, torsion and strain.  
Option C.    tension, compression, twisting and shear.  
Correct Answer is.    tension, compression, torsion and shear.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    30.    The life of the structure is counted by.      
Option A.    landings.  
Option B.    pressurization cycle.  
Option C.    flying hours.  
Correct Answer is.    pressurization cycle.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    31.    What are buttock lines?.      
Option A.    Measurements from the centre line.  
Option B.    Horizontal measurement lines.  
Option C.    Vertical measurement lines.  
Correct Answer is.    Measurements from the centre line.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7.2 Page 17 Para 6.2.              


Question Number.    32.    Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lighting strikes, partially by.      
Option A.    non-conductive paint.  
Option B.    bonding.  
Option C.    conductive paint.  
Correct Answer is.    conductive paint.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    33.    A member taking a compression load is called a.      
Option A.    beam.  
Option B.    cable.  
Option C.    strut.  
Correct Answer is.    strut.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    34.    Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?.      
Option A.    Semi-monocoque.  
Option B.    Truss type.  
Option C.    Monocoque.  
Correct Answer is.    Semi-monocoque.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    35.    Wing stations are measured.      
Option A.    outboard from the wing root.  
Option B.    outboard from the fuselage centreline.  
Option C.    inboard from the wing upper surface.  
Correct Answer is.    outboard from the fuselage centreline.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    36.    What load is a tie rod designed to accept?.      
Option A.    Bending.  
Option B.    Tensile.  
Option C.    Torsion.  
Correct Answer is.    Tensile.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    37.    If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it will be.      
Option A.    red.  
Option B.    green.  
Option C.    yellow.  
Correct Answer is.    red.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    38.    Which of the following is primary structure?.      
Option A.    Frame.  
Option B.    Skin.  
Option C.    Stringer.  
Correct Answer is.    Skin.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    39.    Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in.      
Option A.    feet.  
Option B.    inches.  
Option C.    feet and inches.  
Correct Answer is.    inches.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    40.    Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?.      
Option A.    These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft.  
Option B.    These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of  life.  
Option C.    These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc.  
Correct Answer is.    These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    41.    Structure with built in redundancy is called.      
Option A.    double safe.  
Option B.    failsafe.  
Option C.    safe life.  
Correct Answer is.    failsafe.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    42.    Stress.      
Option A.    is the property of a material to resist fracture.  
Option B.    is the load per unit area acting on a material.  
Option C.    is the deformation of a material caused by applied load.  
Correct Answer is.    is the load per unit area acting on a material.  
Explanation.    AL/7-2 2.2.              


Question Number.    43.    A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles, flying hours or years, regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?.      
Option A.    Safe-life.  
Option B.    Fail-safe.  
Option C.    Condition monitored.  
Correct Answer is.    Safe-life.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    44.    If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either Primary or Secondary, what action should you adopt?.      
Option A.    Upgrade it to primary.  
Option B.    Grade it as secondary.  
Option C.    Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary.  
Correct Answer is.    Upgrade it to primary.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    45.    Safe-life is.      
Option A.    the sharing of loads between adjacent members.  
Option B.    the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs.  
Option C.    the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs.  
Correct Answer is.    the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    46.    Bending stresses are a combination of.      
Option A.    torsional and compression stresses.  
Option B.    tension and shear stresses.  
Option C.    tension and compression stresses.  
Correct Answer is.    tension and compression stresses.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    47.    The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is.      
Option A.    Notice 65.  
Option B.    Notice 79.  
Option C.    Notice 89.  
Correct Answer is.    Notice 89.  
Explanation.    These AWNs are now transferred to CAP747.              


Question Number.    48.    Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the.      
Option A.    operator.  
Option B.    maintenance engineer.  
Option C.    manufacturer.  
Correct Answer is.    manufacturer.  
Explanation.    AWN 89.              


Question Number.    49.    Where are wing stations measured from?.      
Option A.    Water Line (WL).  
Option B.    Zone Line (ZL).  
Option C.    Butt Line (BL).  
Correct Answer is.    Butt Line (BL).  
Explanation.    Obscure question, but the fuselage centreline is 'technically' a buttock line of sorts.              


Question Number.    50.    Where is Zone 323?.      
Option A.    Between rear spar and trailing edge.  
Option B.    Between front and rear spar.  
Option C.    Tip of vertical stabiliser.  
Correct Answer is.    Tip of vertical stabiliser.  
Explanation.    See zonal locations in any Maintenance Manual.              


Question Number.    51.    To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning strike to a composite aircraft, electricity is discharged through.      
Option A.    a sprayed coat of conductive paint.  
Option B.    a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint.  
Option C.    electrically connected primary conductors.  
Correct Answer is.    electrically connected primary conductors.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    52.    A structural member intended to resist compression is a.      
Option A.    web.  
Option B.    tie.  
Option C.    strut.  
Correct Answer is.    strut.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    53.    An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a.      
Option A.    monocoque design.  
Option B.    fail-safe design.  
Option C.    safe-life design.  
Correct Answer is.    fail-safe design.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    54.    Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates.      
Option A.    hogging.  
Option B.    shedding.  
Option C.    sagging.  
Correct Answer is.    sagging.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    55.    If a redundant structure fails it becomes.      
Option A.    safe-life.  
Option B.    fatigued.  
Option C.    failsafe.  
Correct Answer is.    failsafe.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    56.    A redundant structure is.      
Option A.    on-condition structure.  
Option B.    a safe-life structure.  
Option C.    a failsafe structure.  
Correct Answer is.    a failsafe structure.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    57.    The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom of the fuselage is.      
Option A.    butt line.  
Option B.    water line.  
Option C.    fuselage station.  
Correct Answer is.    water line.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    58.    What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?.      
Option A.    Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress.  
Option B.    Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain.  
Option C.    Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear.  
Correct Answer is.    Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    59.    A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as.      
Option A.    secondary.  
Option B.    tertiary.  
Option C.    primary.  
Correct Answer is.    primary.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    60.    An example of primary stress is.      
Option A.    tension.  
Option B.    bending.  
Option C.    shear.  
Correct Answer is.    tension.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    61.    What is the water line?.      
Option A.    The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured.  
Option B.    The datum from which vertical locations refer.  
Option C.    A line below which redux bonding can not be used.  
Correct Answer is.    The datum from which vertical locations refer.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    62.    Lateral stations have station zero at the.      
Option A.    nose.  
Option B.    left wing tip.  
Option C.    centre line.  
Correct Answer is.    centre line.  
Explanation.    NIL.              


Question Number.    63.    Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in.      
Option A.    JAR 25.  
Option B.    ANO 25.  
Option C.    CS 25.  
Correct Answer is.    CS 25.  
Explanation.    JAR 25 is replaced by EASA Certification Specification CS 25.              


Question Number.    64.    An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward facing seat. It is put through a series of crash tests. This is to.      
Option A.    to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg.  
Option B.    test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity.  
Option C.    to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so to measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC).  
Correct Answer is.    to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so to.  
Explanation.    JAR 25.562 (b) para 5.  
           
11.2 Airframe Structures - General Concepts.


Question Number.    1.    What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?.      
Option A.    None is required.  
Option B.    Fire-proof grommets.  
Option C.    Soft rubber.  
Correct Answer is.    Fire-proof grommets.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    2.    he two stages in a good adhesive bond are.      
Option A.    wetting and gripping.  
Option B.    wetting and Setting.  
Option C.    spreading and setting.  
Correct Answer is.    wetting and Setting.  
Explanation.    A module 7 questions. The two processes in adhesive bonding is 'wetting and setting'.          


Question Number.    3.    Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use.      
Option A.    acid etch.  
Option B.    alkaline etch.  
Option C.    solvent etch.  
Correct Answer is.    acid etch.  
Explanation.    Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash.          


Question Number.    4.    The purpose of a primer is to.      
Option A.    provide flexible surface for the top coat.  
Option B.    help bonding of the topcoat.  
Option C.    provide shiny surface for the topcoat.  
Correct Answer is.    help bonding of the topcoat.  
Explanation.    CAIPs BL/6-20 PAra.2.1.          


Question Number.    5.    In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by.      
Option A.    stringers.  
Option B.    bulkheads.  
Option C.    frames.  
Correct Answer is.    stringers.  
Explanation.    CAIP AL/7-2 para 2.6 (last sentence).          


Question Number.    6.    Most large transport aircraft skins are.      
Option A.    7075.  
Option B.    5056.  
Option C.    2024.  
Correct Answer is.    2024.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-8.          


Question Number.    7.    Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?.      
Option A.    PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once.  
Option B.    PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication.  
Option C.    PLI washers can be used more than once, providing they are used in critical bolted joints.  
Correct Answer is.    PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7-8 Para 4.5.4.          


Question Number.    8.    What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?.      
Option A.    Bulkheads.  
Option B.    Frames.  
Option C.    Stringers.  
Correct Answer is.    Stringers.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7.2 para 3.3.          


Question Number.    9.    In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?.      
Option A.    Longerons.  
Option B.    Stringers.  
Option C.    Skin.  
Correct Answer is.    Skin.  
Explanation.    A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28.          


Question Number.    10.    Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?.      
Option A.    Nickel plating.  
Option B.    Zinc plating.  
Option C.    Cadmium plating.  
Correct Answer is.    Cadmium plating.  
Explanation.    CAIPs BL/7-2.          


Question Number.    11.    What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?.      
Option A.    Aluminium alloys.  
Option B.    Ferrous alloys.  
Option C.    Magnesium alloys.  
Correct Answer is.    Magnesium alloys.  
Explanation.    CAIPs BL/7-3.          


Question Number.    12.    When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft, what method of measurement is normally used?.      
Option A.    Lateral alignment method.  
Option B.    Longitudinal alignment method.  
Option C.    Steel tape and spring balance.  
Correct Answer is.    Steel tape and spring balance.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7-12 3.3.5 i.          


Question Number.    13.    Paint remover substances.      
Option A.    are not damaging to any aircraft parts.  
Option B.    are damaging to some aircraft parts.  
Option C.    should only be used once.  
Correct Answer is.    are damaging to some aircraft parts.  
Explanation.    CAIPs BL/6-20 11.1.          


Question Number.    14.    To remove a rivet.      
Option A.    chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch.  
Option B.    drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch.  
Option C.    drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch.  
Correct Answer is.    drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the.  
Explanation.    CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1 says 'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet', but CAIPs BL/6-29 para 10.1 says 'slightly smaller'. We chose the former, because it is current.          


Question Number.    15.    Battery trays are.      
Option A.    absorbent to soak up electrolyte.  
Option B.    metal for earthing purposes.  
Option C.    metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.  
Correct Answer is.    metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.  
Explanation.    Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page 24.          


Question Number.    16.    The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is.      
Option A.    to seal the cabin.  
Option B.    to prevent corrosion.  
Option C.    to provide external streamlining.  
Correct Answer is.    to seal the cabin.  
Explanation.    CAIP AL/7-2 para. 3.7.    http://www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156.htm      


Question Number.    17.    When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt, it is necessary to.      
Option A.    lubricate the collar.  
Option B.    lubricate the shank and threads.  
Option C.    simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated.  
Correct Answer is.    simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated.  
Explanation.    NIL.    http://www.hi-shear.com/fasteners      


Question Number.    18.    Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair.      
Option A.    according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC.  
Option B.    according to SB instructions.  
Option C.    according to AMM and SRM chapter 51.  
Correct Answer is.    according to AMM and SRM chapter 51.  
Explanation.    Chapter 51 is General Practices.          


Question Number.    19.    A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a.      
Option A.    tear stopper.  
Option B.    jury strut.  
Option C.    shear tie.  
Correct Answer is.    tear stopper.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band fig.4).          


Question Number.    20.    What are the faying surfaces of a repair?.      
Option A.    Middle of repair.  
Option B.    Material under repair.  
Option C.    Edges of repair metal.  
Correct Answer is.    Material under repair.  
Explanation.    Open to interpretation. We have gone for 'material under repair' as the surfaces joined together.          


Question Number.    21.    Why is a joggle joint used?.      
Option A.    Smooth contour of surface.  
Option B.    Added strength.  
Option C.    So countersunk rivets do not need to be used.  
Correct Answer is.    Smooth contour of surface.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    22.    Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for.      
Option A.    low strength high toughness.  
Option B.    high strength high ductility.  
Option C.    high strength high toughness.  
Correct Answer is.    high strength high ductility.  
Explanation.    NIL.    http://www.user.lasercom.net/normajean/normajean/newpage1.htm      


Question Number.    23.    The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are.      
Option A.    15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.  
Option B.    20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%.  
Option C.    15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%.  
Correct Answer is.    15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.  
Explanation.    BL/6-20 5.          


Question Number.    24.    What are the types of true bonded joints?.      
Option A.    Cemented and specific.  
Option B.    Mechanical and specific.  
Option C.    Mechanical and cemented.  
Correct Answer is.    Mechanical and specific.  
Explanation.    Nil.          


Question Number.    25.    Why is a joggle joint used?.      
Option A.    To provide a flush fit.  
Option B.    To provide a smooth contour to surface.  
Option C.    To add strength.  
Correct Answer is.    To provide a flush fit.  
Explanation.    Arguably c also, but the joggle does not provide the 'contour'.          


Question Number.    26.    When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached, which type of fastener would you use?.      
Option A.    Blind rivet.  
Option B.    Hi lock bolt.  
Option C.    Pop rivet.  
Correct Answer is.    Blind rivet.  
Explanation.    Pop rivet is not a blind fastener because the broken stem must be retrieved.          


Question Number.    27.    With regard to extraneous spilt fluids.      
Option A.    they may be harmful to the aircraft structure.  
Option B.    they can be ignored, they provide extra protection.  
Option C.    they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft.  
Correct Answer is.    they may be harmful to the aircraft structure.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    28.    Skin panels may be strengthened by.      
Option A.    stringers.  
Option B.    struts.  
Option C.    cleats.  
Correct Answer is.    stringers.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    29.    What is the normal form of construction of a spar?.      
Option A.    One boom mounted under a web.  
Option B.    Two webs separated by a boom.  
Option C.    Two booms separated by a web.  
Correct Answer is.    Two booms separated by a web.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    30.    A crack stopper is fitted.      
Option A.    after a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.  
Option B.    before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation.  
Option C.    before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.  
Correct Answer is.    before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    31.    Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?.      
Option A.    Install critical stress panels or plates.  
Option B.    Remove all optional equipment.  
Option C.    Determine the fuel tanks are empty.  
Correct Answer is.    Install critical stress panels or plates.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    32.    Synthetic resins are made from nylon, vinyl and.      
Option A.    asphalt.  
Option B.    cellulose.  
Option C.    acrylics.  
Correct Answer is.    acrylics.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    33.    One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it.      
Option A.    is easier to manufacture.  
Option B.    shares the loads.  
Option C.    takes all the loads in the skin.  
Correct Answer is.    shares the loads.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    34.    In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the.      
Option A.    frames.  
Option B.    skin.  
Option C.    longerons.  
Correct Answer is.    skin.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    35.    Intercostals are.      
Option A.    vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane.  
Option B.    longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames.  
Option C.    compression ribs in cantilever wings.  
Correct Answer is.    longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    36.    Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as.      
Option A.    crack limiting joints.  
Option B.    secondary joints.  
Option C.    failsafe joints.  
Correct Answer is.    failsafe joints.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    37.    If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be.      
Option A.    aluminium alloy.  
Option B.    stainless steel.  
Option C.    plastic.  
Correct Answer is.    stainless steel.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    38.    An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has.      
Option A.    a missed placed centre of gravity on landing.  
Option B.    too much kinetic energy on landing.  
Option C.    an excessive fuel load on take-off.  
Correct Answer is.    too much kinetic energy on landing.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    39.    Symmetry checks should be carried out.      
Option A.    in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels.  
Option B.    on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels.  
Option C.    in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks.  
Correct Answer is.    in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks.  
Explanation.    CAAIPs Leaflet 6-5 para 2.          


Question Number.    40.    The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to.      
Option A.    help bonding for top-coat.  
Option B.    provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat.  
Option C.    provide a flexible surface for top-coat.  
Correct Answer is.    help bonding for top-coat.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook. page 6-8.          


Question Number.    41.    Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member.      
Option A.    if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location.  
Option B.    if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member.  
Option C.    if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member.  
Correct Answer is.    if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    42.    When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will indicate.      
Option A.    humidity.  
Option B.    toxic gases.  
Option C.    temperature.  
Correct Answer is.    humidity.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    43.    The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is.      
Option A.    1 in 400.  
Option B.    1 in 600.  
Option C.    1 in 200.  
Correct Answer is.    1 in 600.  
Explanation.    CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13.          


Question Number.    44.    Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by.      
Option A.    longerons.  
Option B.    bulkheads.  
Option C.    stringers.  
Correct Answer is.    stringers.  
Explanation.    NIL.          


Question Number.    45.    Which loads do longerons resist?.      
Option A.    Bending, compression and tensile.  
Option B.    Torsional only.  
Option C.    Bending, compression, tensile and torsion.  
Correct Answer is.    Bending, compression and tensile.  
Explanation.    NIL.          

11.03.1 Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Fuselage (ATA 52/53/56).


Question Number.    1.    What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?.      
Option A.    Soft rubber.  
Option B.    Fire-proof grommets.  
Option C.    None is required.  
Correct Answer is.    Fire-proof grommets.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    2.    The two stages in a good adhesive bond are.      
Option A.    wetting and Setting.  
Option B.    wetting and gripping.  
Option C.    spreading and setting.  
Correct Answer is.    wetting and Setting.  
Explanation.    A module 7 questions. The two processes in adhesive bonding is 'wetting and setting'.


Question Number.    3.    Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use.      
Option A.    acid etch.  
Option B.    alkaline etch.  
Option C.    solvent etch.  
Correct Answer is.    acid etch.  
Explanation.    Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash.


Question Number.    4.    The purpose of a primer is to.      
Option A.    provide shiny surface for the topcoat.  
Option B.    provide flexible surface for the top coat.  
Option C.    help bonding of the topcoat.  
Correct Answer is.    help bonding of the topcoat.  
Explanation.    CAIPs BL/6-20 PAra.2.1.


Question Number.    5.    In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by.      
Option A.    stringers.  
Option B.    bulkheads.  
Option C.    frames.  
Correct Answer is.    stringers.  
Explanation.    CAIP AL/7-2 para 2.6 (last sentence).


Question Number.    6.    Most large transport aircraft skins are.      
Option A.    2024.  
Option B.    7075.  
Option C.    5056.  
Correct Answer is.    2024.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-8.


Question Number.    7.    Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?.      
Option A.    PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication.  
Option B.    PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once.  
Option C.    PLI washers can be used more than once, providing they are used in critical bolted joints.  
Correct Answer is.    PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7-8 Para 4.5.4.


Question Number.    8.    What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?.      
Option A.    Stringers.  
Option B.    Bulkheads.  
Option C.    Frames.  
Correct Answer is.    Stringers.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7.2 para 3.3.


Question Number.    9.    In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?.      
Option A.    Longerons.  
Option B.    Stringers.  
Option C.    Skin.  
Correct Answer is.    Skin.  
Explanation.    A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28.


Question Number.    10.    Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?.      
Option A.    Zinc plating.  
Option B.    Cadmium plating.  
Option C.    Nickel plating.  
Correct Answer is.    Cadmium plating.  
Explanation.    CAIPs BL/7-2.


Question Number.    11.    What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?.      
Option A.    Aluminium alloys.  
Option B.    Magnesium alloys.  
Option C.    Ferrous alloys.  
Correct Answer is.    Magnesium alloys.  
Explanation.    CAIPs BL/7-3.


Question Number.    12.    When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft, what method of measurement is normally used?.      
Option A.    Lateral alignment method.  
Option B.    Longitudinal alignment method.  
Option C.    Steel tape and spring balance.  
Correct Answer is.    Steel tape and spring balance.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7-12 3.3.5 i.


Question Number.    13.    Paint remover substances.      
Option A.    are damaging to some aircraft parts.  
Option B.    should only be used once.  
Option C.    should only be used once.  
Correct Answer is.    are damaging to some aircraft parts.  
Explanation.    should only be used once.


Question Number.    14.    To remove a rivet.      
Option A.    drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch.  
Option B.    chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch.  
Option C.    drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch.  
Correct Answer is.    drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch.  
Explanation.    CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1 says 'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet', but CAIPs BL/6-29 para 10.1 says 'slightly smaller'. We chose the former, because it is current.


Question Number.    15.    Battery trays are.      
Option A.    absorbent to soak up electrolyte.  
Option B.    metal for earthing purposes.  
Option C.    metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.  
Correct Answer is.    metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.  
Explanation.    Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page 24.


Question Number.    16.    The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is.      
Option A.    to seal the cabin.  
Option B.    to prevent corrosion.  
Option C.    to provide external streamlining.  
Correct Answer is.    to seal the cabin.  
Explanation.    CAIP AL/7-2 para. 3.7 and http://www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156.htm.


Question Number.    17.    When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt, it is necessary to.      
Option A.    simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated.  
Option B.    lubricate the collar.  
Option C.    lubricate the shank and threads.  
Correct Answer is.    simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated.  
Explanation.    NIL.    http://www.hi-shear.com/fasteners


Question Number.    18.    Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:.      
Option A.    according to AMM and SRM chapter 51.  
Option B.    according to SB instructions.  
Option C.    according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC.  
Correct Answer is.    according to AMM and SRM chapter 51.  
Explanation.    Chapter 51 is General Practices.  


Question Number.    19.    A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a.      
Option A.    jury strut.  
Option B.    tear stopper.  
Option C.    shear tie.  
Correct Answer is.    tear stopper.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band fig.4).  


Question Number.    20.    What are the faying surfaces of a repair?.      
Option A.    Middle of repair.  
Option B.    Edges of repair metal.  
Option C.    Material under repair.  
Correct Answer is.    Material under repair.  
Explanation.    Open to interpretation. We have gone for 'material under repair' as the surfaces joined together.  


Question Number.    21.    Why is a joggle joint used?.      
Option A.    So countersunk rivets do not need to be used.  
Option B.    Smooth contour of surface.  
Option C.    Added strength.  
Correct Answer is.    Smooth contour of surface.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    22.    Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for.      
Option A.    high strength high toughness.  
Option B.    high strength high stiffness.  
Option C.    low strength high toughness.  
Correct Answer is.    high strength high stiffness.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    23.    The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are.      
Option A.    20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%.  
Option B.    15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.  
Option C.    15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%.  
Correct Answer is.    15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.  
Explanation.    BL/6-20 5.  


Question Number.    24.    What are the types of true bonded joints?.      
Option A.    Mechanical and specific.  
Option B.    Mechanical and cemented.  
Option C.    Mechanical and cemented.  
Correct Answer is.    Mechanical and specific.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    25.    Why is a joggle joint used?.      
Option A.    To provide a smooth contour to surface.  
Option B.    To add strength.  
Option C.    To provide a flush fit.  
Correct Answer is.    To provide a flush fit.  
Explanation.    Arguably c also, but the joggle does not provide the 'contour'.  


Question Number.    26.    When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached, which type of fastener would you use?.      
Option A.    Pop rivet.  
Option B.    Hi lock bolt.  
Option C.    Blind rivet.  
Correct Answer is.    Blind rivet.  
Explanation.    Pop rivet is not a blind fastener because the broken stem must be retrieved.  


Question Number.    27.    With regard to extraneous spilt fluids.      
Option A.    they may be harmful to the aircraft structure.  
Option B.    they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft.  
Option C.    they can be ignored, they provide extra protection.  
Correct Answer is.    they may be harmful to the aircraft structure.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    28.    Skin panels may be strengthened by.      
Option A.    cleats.  
Option B.    struts.  
Option C.    stringers.  
Correct Answer is.    stringers.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    29.    What is the normal form of construction of a spar?.      
Option A.    Two webs separated by a boom.  
Option B.    One boom mounted under a web.  
Option C.    Two booms separated by a web.  
Correct Answer is.    Two booms separated by a web.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    30.    A crack stopper is fitted.      
Option A.    before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation.  
Option B.    before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.  
Option C.    after a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.  
Correct Answer is.    before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    31.    Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?.      
Option A.    Install critical stress panels or plates.  
Option B.    Determine the fuel tanks are empty.  
Option C.    Remove all optional equipment.  
Correct Answer is.    Install critical stress panels or plates.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    32.    Synthetic resins are made from nylon, vinyl and.      
Option A.    asphalt.  
Option B.    cellulose.  
Option C.    acrylics.  
Correct Answer is.    acrylics.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    33.    One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it.      
Option A.    is easier to manufacture.  
Option B.    shares the loads.  
Option C.    takes all the loads in the skin.  
Correct Answer is.    shares the loads.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    34.    In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the.      
Option A.    longerons.  
Option B.    frames.  
Option C.    skin.  
Correct Answer is.    skin.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    35.    Intercostals are.      
Option A.    vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane.  
Option B.    compression ribs in cantilever wings.  
Option C.    longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames.  
Correct Answer is.    longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    36.    Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as.      
Option A.    failsafe joints.  
Option B.    secondary joints.  
Option C.    crack limiting joints.  
Correct Answer is.    failsafe joints.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    37.    If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be.      
Option A.    plastic.  
Option B.    aluminium alloy.  
Option C.    stainless steel.  
Correct Answer is.    stainless steel.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    38.    An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has.      
Option A.    too much kinetic energy on landing.  
Option B.    a missed placed centre of gravity on landing.  
Option C.    an excessive fuel load on take-off.  
Correct Answer is.    too much kinetic energy on landing.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    39.    Symmetry checks should be carried out.      
Option A.    in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels.  
Option B.    on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels.  
Option C.    in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks.  
Correct Answer is.    in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    40.    The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to.      
Option A.    help bonding for top-coat.  
Option B.    provide a flexible surface for top-coat.  
Option C.    provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat.  
Correct Answer is.    help bonding for top-coat.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook. page 6-8.


Question Number.    41.    Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member.      
Option A.    if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member.  
Option B.    if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location.  
Option C.    if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member.  
Correct Answer is.    if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    42.    When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will indicate.      
Option A.    humidity.  
Option B.    temperature.  
Option C.    toxic gases.  
Correct Answer is.    humidity.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    43.    The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is.      
Option A.    1 in 600.  
Option B.    1 in 200.  
Option C.    1 in 400.  
Correct Answer is.    1 in 600.  
Explanation.    CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13.


Question Number.    44.    Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by.      
Option A.    stringers.  
Option B.    longerons.  
Option C.    bulkheads.  
Correct Answer is.    stringers.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    45.    Which loads do longerons resist?.      
Option A.    Torsional only.  
Option B.    Bending, compression, tensile and torsion.  
Option C.    Bending, compression and tensile.  
Correct Answer is.    Bending, compression and tensile.  
Explanation.    NIL.


11.03.2 Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Wings (ATA 57).


Question Number.    1.    A spar web will take loads in.      
Option A.    bending.  
Option B.    tension.  
Option C.    shear.  
Correct Answer is.    shear.  
Explanation.    The spar as a whole, takes bending and shear. The bending is taken by the booms (as compression-top and tension - bottom) and the web takes the shear. (Sometimes called a 'shear' web).  


Question Number.    2.    Wing bending and shear loads are taken by.      
Option A.    spar cap.  
Option B.    skin.  
Option C.    main spar.  
Correct Answer is.    main spar.  
Explanation.    The main spar takes the wing bending and shear loads.  


Question Number.    3.    An aspect ratio of 8 could mean.      
Option A.    span 64 ft., mean chord 8 ft.  
Option B.    span squared 64 ft., chord 8 ft.  
Option C.    mean chord 64 ft., span 8 ft.  
Correct Answer is.    span 64 ft., mean chord 8 ft.  
Explanation.    Aspect Ratio = span/mean chord.  


Question Number.    4.    A cantilever wing is a.      
Option A.    usual airliner wing.  
Option B.    top wing of a biplane.  
Option C.    swept-back wing.  
Correct Answer is.    usual airliner wing.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 2.  


Question Number.    5.    On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?.      
Option A.    Milled stringers.  
Option B.    The position of the spars.  
Option C.    Ribs.  
Correct Answer is.    Ribs.  
Explanation.    AL/7-2 para 4.2.  


Question Number.    6.    A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and.      
Option A.    leading edge flaps.  
Option B.    trailing edge flaps.  
Option C.    slots.  
Correct Answer is.    leading edge flaps.  
Explanation.    Slots are fixed features - no linkages, or are produced when the slats open.  


Question Number.    7.    The mid-spar is fitted in large aircraft to.      
Option A.    support fitting the engine mount & landing gear mount.  
Option B.    assist the main spar with operational loads.  
Option C.    provide redundant design.  
Correct Answer is.    assist the main spar with operational loads.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    8.    The main undercarriage is attached to the.      
Option A.    aircraft structure.  
Option B.    rear main spar.  
Option C.    front main spar.  
Correct Answer is.    aircraft structure.  
Explanation.    The only wholly correct answer.  


Question Number.    9.    The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called.      
Option A.    fillet.  
Option B.    interfay.  
Option C.    brush coat.  
Correct Answer is.    brush coat.  
Explanation.    B737 ANN 28-11-00 page 811, the 3 coats of sealant for repair fuel tanks leak are termed as fillet, injection and prepack. Fillet seal is the first coat.  


Question Number.    10.    The principle load bearing members of the wing are.      
Option A.    spars.  
Option B.    struts.  
Option C.    ribs.  
Correct Answer is.    spars.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    11.    One purpose of a rib is to.      
Option A.    support the bending loads on a fuselage.  
Option B.    form the main lateral member in an aerofoil.  
Option C.    maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering.  
Correct Answer is.    maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    12.    What is a cantilever wing?.      
Option A.    One that folds for access to limited space.  
Option B.    One that has external supporting struts.  
Option C.    One that has no external supporting struts.  
Correct Answer is.    One that has no external supporting struts.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    13.    A spar is tapered from root to tip because.      
Option A.    shear forces are greatest at the root.  
Option B.    bending moment is greatest at the root.  
Option C.    centre of lift occurs close to the root.  
Correct Answer is.    bending moment is greatest at the root.  
Explanation.    AL/7-2 para 4.1.  


Question Number.    14.    A spar web is.      
Option A.    a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection.  
Option B.    an area between two spar caps.  
Option C.    a rib/spar joint.  
Correct Answer is.    a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    15.    A leading edge slat is attached to the.      
Option A.    slat track.  
Option B.    wing upper skin.  
Option C.    front spar.  
Correct Answer is.    slat track.  
Explanation.    NIL.    http://www.b737.org.uk/flightcontrols.htm

1103.3(A&B) Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Stabilisers (ATA 55).


Question Number.    1.    The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?.      
Option A.    Shear.  
Option B.    Tension.  
Option C.    Bending.  
Correct Answer is.    Shear.  
Explanation.    A 'web' always takes shear loads.


Question Number.    2.    The term 'empennage' incorporates.      
Option A.    rudder, ailerons, spoilers.  
Option B.    elevators, stabiliser, ailerons.  
Option C.    elevators, stabiliser, rudder.  
Correct Answer is.    elevators, stabiliser, rudder.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    3.    The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are.      
Option A.    spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels.  
Option B.    spar, rib, stringers, skin panels.  
Option C.    spar, rib, longerons, skin panels.  
Correct Answer is.    spar, rib, stringers, skin panels.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    4.    To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a variable incidence tailplane, the incidence of the tailplane would be.      
Option A.    decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.  
Option B.    decreased, which is done by lowering the trailing edge.  
Option C.    increased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.  
Correct Answer is.    decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    5.    An upward elevator deflection on the reverse camber tailplane.      
Option A.    may increase or decrease download depending upon the aircraft C of G position.  
Option B.    will decrease tailplane download.  
Option C.    will increase tailplane download.  
Correct Answer is.    will increase tailplane download.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    6.    Variable incidence tailplanes.      
Option A.    move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb.  
Option B.    out and landing approach and slowly during cruise always move slowly.  
Option C.    move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during the landing approach and slowly at all other times.  
Correct Answer is.    move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb out and landing approach and slowly during cruise.  
Explanation.    B737-400, AMM 27-41-00 PAGE 5 para 1.c, trim speed is depend on the flap position. Trim rate with flaps retracted is 1/3 the trim rate with flaps extended.


Question Number.    7.    The direction of travel of an electrically operated variable incidence tailplane is determined by.      
Option A.    a gearbox.  
Option B.    solenoid operated clutches.  
Option C.    direction of rotation of the electric motor.  
Correct Answer is.    solenoid operated clutches.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    8.    On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tailplane, the tailplane incidence changes.      
Option A.    if the control column is moved back or forward.  
Option B.    automatically if the elevator moves.  
Option C.    if the trim wheel is turned back or forward.  
Correct Answer is.    if the trim wheel is turned back or forward.  
Explanation.    NIL.

11.03.4. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Flight Control Surfaces (ATA 55/57).


Question Number.    1.    Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control surface assembly.      
Option A.    serves as a 'servo' system of balance.  
Option B.    has same effect of the balance tab.  
Option C.    is meant to trim CG of control surfaces.  
Correct Answer is.    has same effect of the balance tab.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook. Jeppesen 1-24 fig 1-59, balance tab 1-23 -para 3.


Question Number.    2.    The fin helps to give.      
Option A.    directional stability about the normal axis.  
Option B.    longitudinal stability about the normal axis.  
Option C.    directional stability about the longitudinal axis.  
Correct Answer is.    directional stability about the normal axis.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-22.


Question Number.    3.    Which of the following are primary control surfaces?.      
Option A.    Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs.  
Option B.    Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs.  
Option C.    Elevators, ailerons, rudder.  
Correct Answer is.    Elevators, ailerons, rudder.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    4.    Aerodynamic balance.      
Option A.    will reduce aerodynamic loading.  
Option B.    will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability.  
Option C.    will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability.  
Correct Answer is.    will reduce aerodynamic loading.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    5.    Flutter can be reduced by using.      
Option A.    servo tabs.  
Option B.    mass balancing.  
Option C.    a horn balance.  
Correct Answer is.    mass balancing.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    6.    An elevator provides control about the.      
Option A.    horizontal stabilizer.  
Option B.    longitudinal axis.  
Option C.    lateral axis.  
Correct Answer is.    lateral axis.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    7.    The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft.      
Option A.    are isolated at low speeds.  
Option B.    are isolated to improve sensitivity.  
Option C.    are isolated at high speeds.  
Correct Answer is.    are isolated at high speeds.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    8.    An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure.      
Option A.    rearwards, resulting in too much assistance.  
Option B.    rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance.  
Option C.    forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.  
Correct Answer is.    forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    9.    A flying control mass balance weight.      
Option A.    keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.  
Option B.    tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.  
Option C.    ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load.  
Correct Answer is.    tends to move the control surface C of G.close to the hinge line.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    10.    What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?.      
Option A.    Elevator.  
Option B.    Aileron.  
Option C.    Rudder.  
Correct Answer is.    Rudder.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    11.    The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to.      
Option A.    attach weights forward of the hinge line.  
Option B.    allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow.  
Option C.    fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces.  
Correct Answer is.    attach weights forward of the hinge line.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    12.    Control surface flutter may be caused by.      
Option A.    excessive play in trim tab attachments.  
Option B.    high static friction in trim tab control tabs.  
Option C.    incorrect angular movement of trim tabs.  
Correct Answer is.    excessive play in trim tab attachments.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    13.    A 'frise' aileron is incorporated to.      
Option A.    provide aerodynamic balancing so assisting the pilot to move the control.  
Option B.    ensure aileron control is retained at high angles of attack.  
Option C.    equalize aileron drag in a turn.  
Correct Answer is.    equalize aileron drag in a turn.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    14.    Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved.      
Option A.    by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.  
Option B.    by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface.  
Option C.    by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line.  
Correct Answer is.    by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7.


Question Number.    15.    A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to.      
Option A.    decrease the drag when the control is deflected.  
Option B.    assist the pilot in moving the control.  
Option C.    increase stability.  
Correct Answer is.    assist the pilot in moving the control.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7.


Question Number.    16.    The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram), is provided to.      

Option A.    prevent control surface flutter.  
Option B.    provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder.  
Option C.    make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control.  
Correct Answer is.    Provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 25 Para 7.
                                                             
                                                             


Question Number.    17.    The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface.      
Option A.    operating automatically to provide feel to the controls.  
Option B.    operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied.  
Option C.    operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.  
Correct Answer is.    operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    18.    Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by.      
Option A.    placing a weight ahead of the hinge point.  
Option B.    providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.  
Option C.    placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface.  
Correct Answer is.    providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.  
Explanation.    AL/3-24 para 4.2


Question Number.    19.    Aerodynamic balance is used to.      
Option A.    make the flying controls easier to move.  
Option B.    prevent flutter of the flying controls.  
Option C.    reduce the control load to zero.  
Correct Answer is.    make the flying controls easier to move.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    20.    A horn balance is.      
Option A.    a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end.  
Option B.    a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached.  
Option C.    a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.  
Correct Answer is.    a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16


Question Number.    21.    A control surface is mass balanced by.      
Option A.    the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line.  
Option B.    the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line.  
Option C.    fitting a balance tab.  
Correct Answer is.    the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    22.    The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to.      
Option A.    relieve stick loads.  
Option B.    trim the aircraft.  
Option C.    give more feel to the control column.  
Correct Answer is.    give more feel to the control column.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    23.    A flying control mass balance weight.      
Option A.    tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge line.  
Option B.    tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.  
Option C.    keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.  
Correct Answer is.    tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    24.    An elevator controls the aircraft motion in.      
Option A.    yaw.  
Option B.    pitch.  
Option C.    roll.  
Correct Answer is.    pitch.  
Explanation.    NIL.

11.03.5. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Nacelles/Pylons (ATA 54).


Question Number.    1.    Jet engines are usually mounted by.      
Option A.    aluminium castings.  
Option B.    forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure.  
Option C.    welded steel tubing.  
Correct Answer is.    forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    2.    A pylon structural member supports the.      
Option A.    centre section.  
Option B.    engine.  
Option C.    empennage.  
Correct Answer is.    engine.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    3.    Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks.      
Option A.    provide wing bending relief.  
Option B.    provide increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on landing.  
Option C.    reduce tailplane download.  
Correct Answer is.    provide wing bending relief.  
Explanation.    NIL.

11.04(A&B) Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21).


Question Number.    1.    As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft), the cabin altitude must.      
Option A.    stay the same.  
Option B.    increase.  
Option C.    decrease.  
Correct Answer is.    decrease.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-22. CAIPs AL/3-23.


Question Number.    2.    A refrigerant is used in which of the following?.      
Option A.    Vapour cycle.  
Option B.    Air cycle machine.  
Option C.    Pneumatic pump.  
Correct Answer is.    Vapour cycle.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-34.


Question Number.    3.    The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause.      
Option A.    the cabin pressure to increase.  
Option B.    the cabin pressure to decrease.  
Option C.    it will not effect on cabin pressure.  
Correct Answer is.    the cabin pressure to increase.  
Explanation.    The discharge valve is opened by vacuum in the signal line. If line leaks , valve will close, and cabin pressure will increase. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page 14-22.


Question Number.    4.    A spill valve opens.      
Option A.    to control the flow to the cabin.  
Option B.    to control the air from the cabin to outside.  
Option C.    to prevent an excessive pressure difference.  
Correct Answer is.    to control the flow to the cabin.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23.


Question Number.    5.    A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13,000 ft. by.      
Option A.    altitude sensor.  
Option B.    cabin over pressure relief valve.  
Option C.    bellows in the outflow valve.  
Correct Answer is.    altitude sensor.  
Explanation.    CAIP AL/3-23 para 7.


Question Number.    6.    The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant.      
Option A.    inlet and vary the outlet.  
Option B.    outlet and vary the inlet.  
Option C.    inlet and outlet.  
Correct Answer is.    inlet and vary the outlet.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-20.


Question Number.    7.    The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control.      
Option A.    cabin differential pressure.  
Option B.    the rate of pressurisation.  
Option C.    cabin air flow.  
Correct Answer is.    cabin differential pressure.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-22. CAIPs AL/3-23.


Question Number.    8.    Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is.      
Option A.    more important in ascent.  
Option B.    equally important in ascent and descent.  
Option C.    more important in descent.  
Correct Answer is.    more important in descent.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-20 onwards. CAIPs AL/3-23.


Question Number.    9.    With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the differential capsule in the pressure controller will.      
Option A.    let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure.  
Option B.    let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.  
Option C.    have a constant mass flow.  
Correct Answer is.    let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4.3.13.


Question Number.    10.    If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum.      
Option A.    a warning light comes on in the cockpit.  
Option B.    compressor delivery is automatically boosted.  
Option C.    an inward relief valve opens.  
Correct Answer is.    a warning light comes on in the cockpit.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4.4.4.


Question Number.    11.    A water separator is located.      
Option A.    downstream of heat exchanger.  
Option B.    downstream of turbine.  
Option C.    upstream of the turbine.  
Correct Answer is.    downstream of turbine.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16-30 or CAIPs AL/3-24 4.2.3 fig 3.


Question Number.    12.    A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is.      
Option A.    500 ft. per min.  
Option B.    300 ft. per min.  
Option C.    100 ft. per min.  
Correct Answer is.    500 ft. per min.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23.


Question Number.    13.    Before carrying out a ground pressure check,.      
Option A.    set altimeter to QNH.  
Option B.    check all pitot and static lines are fitted.  
Option C.    turn on all instruments.  
Correct Answer is.    check all pitot and static lines are fitted.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 12.2.5.


Question Number.    14.    On touch-down of aircraft.      
Option A.    the outflow valve will be shut.  
Option B.    the cabin pressure will be zero.  
Option C.    the outflow valve will be fully open.  
Correct Answer is.    the outflow valve will be fully open.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    15.    The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed.      
Option A.    40 feet per second.  
Option B.    120 feet per second.  
Option C.    20 feet per second.  
Correct Answer is.    120 feet per second.  
Explanation.    BCAR Section D6.


Question Number.    16.    On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system, after an overheat, how is the heater reset?.      
Option A.    After it cools the pilot resets.  
Option B.    On ground only by engineer.  
Option C.    After cooling below 300°C it auto resets.  
Correct Answer is.    On ground only by engineer.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe pg 14-30 under Safety Features.


Question Number.    17.    Ditching control is used to.      
Option A.    achieve rapid depressurisation.  
Option B.    close the outflow valves.  
Option C.    maintain cabin pressure at sea level.  
Correct Answer is.    close the outflow valves.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-2 fig 5 item Y, CAAIPs Leaflet 5-2.  


Question Number.    18.    When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be.      
Option A.    all closed.  
Option B.    all open.  
Option C.    removed.  
Correct Answer is.    all open.  
Explanation.    AL/3-23 12.3.4.  


Question Number.    19.    Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it is necessary to.      
Option A.    set QFE.  
Option B.    disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve.  
Option C.    reset/disable the pressure controller.  
Correct Answer is.    reset/disable the pressure controller.  
Explanation.    The pressurisation system must be controlled manually. Setting QFE is for the automatic control of the valves.  


Question Number.    20.    In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler.      
Option A.    is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour.  
Option B.    delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground.  
Option C.    cools the vapour further to prevent slugging.  
Correct Answer is.    is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour.  
Explanation.    NIL.    http://www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14020/css/14020_106.htm


Question Number.    21.    In an air conditioning system, heat is added to air by.      
Option A.    restricting compressor outlet.  
Option B.    restricting compressor inlet.  
Option C.    restricting duct outlets.  
Correct Answer is.    restricting compressor outlet.  
Explanation.    Best answer we can get to a bad question. Heat is added by varying the amount of compressor outlet air that bypasses the heat exchanger.  


Question Number.    22.    Which of the following can be used on the ground?.      
Option A.    Turbo fan.  
Option B.    Turbo compressor.  
Option C.    Turbo brake.  
Correct Answer is.    Turbo fan.  
Explanation.    Used on air conditioning systems to supply air on ground.  


Question Number.    23.    Air conditioning systems.      
Option A.    increase and decrease the temperature of air.  
Option B.    increase the temperature of air.  
Option C.    decrease the temperature of air.  
Correct Answer is.    decrease the temperature of air.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-24 Para 2.2.  


Question Number.    24.    An air cycle machine turbine.      
Option A.    drives compressor to increase temperature.  
Option B.    drives compressor to decrease temperature.  
Option C.    drives compressor to pressurise aircraft.  
Correct Answer is.    drives compressor to increase temperature.  
Explanation.    The compressor is to INCREASE the temperature to increase the rate at which heat energy can be extracted.  


Question Number.    25.    In the flightdeck of a pressurised aircraft, there is a gauge that shows.      
Option A.    cabin differential pressure.  
Option B.    cabin pressure altitude.  
Option C.    aircraft altitude.  
Correct Answer is.    cabin differential pressure.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-23.  


Question Number.    26.    Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM.      
Option A.    will have decreased pressure and temperature.  
Option B.    no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor.  
Option C.    will have increased pressure and temperature.  
Correct Answer is.    will have increased pressure and temperature.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    27.    Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between.      
Option A.    8,000ft and standard barometric pressure.  
Option B.    sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin.  
Option C.    the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure.  
Correct Answer is.    the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    28.    If the pressure controller is set to 0 ft.      
Option A.    maximum differential is reached immediately after take-off.  
Option B.    cabin will not pressurise.  
Option C.    cabin remains at sea level untill maximum differential.  
Correct Answer is.    cabin will not pressurise.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    29.    During a pressurisation check at maximum differential, if the engines are shut-down.      
Option A.    cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency.  
Option B.    aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens.  
Option C.    outflow valve opens immediately.  
Correct Answer is.    cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    30.    Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?.      
Option A.    At the outlet of the compressor.  
Option B.    At the inlet of the turbine.  
Option C.    At the inlet of the compressor.  
Correct Answer is.    At the inlet of the turbine.  
Explanation.    CAIPs shows it at the outlet of the turbine (not one of the answers). B757 has an additional water trap at the inlet of the turbine.  


Question Number.    31.    Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning system?.      
Option A.    At the inlet to the cabin.  
Option B.    At the outlet of the blower.  
Option C.    At the inlet of the blower.  
Correct Answer is.    At the outlet of the blower.  
Explanation.    AL/3-24 Figure 3.  


Question Number.    32.    When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?.      
Option A.    At high altitudes.  
Option B.    At low altitudes.  
Option C.    It is not affected by altitude.  
Correct Answer is.    It is not affected by altitude.  
Explanation.    AL/3-24 Figure 3 (effect of the Spill Valve).  


Question Number.    33.    In an air conditioning system, before distribution, the air goes through the.      
Option A.    flow control valve.  
Option B.    TCV.  
Option C.    TCV and mixer valve.  
Correct Answer is.    TCV.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    34.    What is the minimum cabin air mass flow?.      
Option A.    0.5 lbs per minute per person.  
Option B.    10 lbs per minute per person.  
Option C.    1 lbs per minute per person.  
Correct Answer is.    0.5 lbs per minute per person.  
Explanation.    BCAR Section D.


Question Number.    35.    The function of an air mass flow control valve is to.      
Option A.    ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded.  
Option B.    maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes.  
Option C.    control the airflow out of the cabin.  
Correct Answer is.    maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    36.    In a cabin air recirculation system, recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in the proportions.      
Option A.    50% of fresh air, 50% of recirculated air.  
Option B.    60% of fresh air, 40% of recirculated air.  
Option C.    40% of fresh air, 60% of recirculated air.  
Correct Answer is.    60% of fresh air, 40% of recirculated air.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    37.    Cabin pressure is maintained by.      
Option A.    controlling the output of the compressor.  
Option B.    controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin.  
Option C.    controlling the supply of air to the cabin.  
Correct Answer is.    controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    38.    Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is.      
Option A.    most important in ascent.  
Option B.    most important in descent.  
Option C.    equally important in descent and ascent.  
Correct Answer is.    most important in descent.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23.


Question Number.    39.    Air supplied for pressurisation and conditioning is.      
Option A.    hottest from an engine compressor bleed.  
Option B.    hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box.  
Option C.    the same for both the above sources.  
Correct Answer is.    hottest from an engine compressor bleed.  
Explanation.    AL/3-24 2.3/2.5.


Question Number.    40.    The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by.      
Option A.    automatic control devices.  
Option B.    engine speed variations.  
Option C.    spill valves.  
Correct Answer is.    spill valves.  
Explanation.    AL/3-24 Fig. 3.


Question Number.    41.    An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to.      
Option A.    reduce the air supply temperature.  
Option B.    increase the air supply temperature.  
Option C.    provide an emergency ram air supply.  
Correct Answer is.    reduce the air supply temperature.  
Explanation.    AL/3-24 4.2.


Question Number.    42.    Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by.      
Option A.    controlling the water vapour in the supply.  
Option B.    regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.  
Option C.    varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger.  
Correct Answer is.    regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-24 Fig 3.


Question Number.    43.    Inward vent valves are fitted to.      
Option A.    limit negative differentials.  
Option B.    increase ventilation.  
Option C.    limit positive differentials.  
Correct Answer is.    limit negative differentials.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 6.2.


Question Number.    44.    Cabin rate of climb is shown by.      
Option A.    warning lights.  
Option B.    a special instrument.  
Option C.    a double scale on the aircraft.  
Correct Answer is.    a double scale on the aircraft.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 Fig 3.


Question Number.    45.    During normal pressurized climb following take-off.      
Option A.    the cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.  
Option B.    the cabin R.O.C. is more than ambient R.O.C.  
Option C.    the differential pressure is constant.  
Correct Answer is.    the cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2.


Question Number.    46.    Inward vent valves will operate when.      
Option A.    depressurising after descent.  
Option B.    cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude.  
Option C.    aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude.  
Correct Answer is.    cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 6.2.


Question Number.    47.    Cabin differential pressure is the difference between.      
Option A.    cabin pressure and ambient pressure.  
Option B.    8,000 ft and sea level.  
Option C.    I.S.A. conditions and aircraft altitude.  
Correct Answer is.    cabin pressure and ambient pressure.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2.


Question Number.    48.    Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the.      
Option A.    altitude at which cabin altitude equals outside air pressure.  
Option B.    pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level I.S.A. conditions.  
Option C.    altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft.  
Correct Answer is.    altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2.


Question Number.    49.    In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by.      
Option A.    adding heat to the pressurising air.  
Option B.    varying cabin pressure.  
Option C.    extracting heat from the pressurising air.  
Correct Answer is.    extracting heat from the pressurising air.  
Explanation.    CAIPS AL/3-24 4.


Question Number.    50.    If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine compressor, an internal oil leak will.      
Option A.    contaminate the air.  
Option B.    not affect the issue as it is automatically detected and vented overboard.  
Option C.    not contaminate the air.  
Correct Answer is.    contaminate the air.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    51.    A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by.      
Option A.    reducing pressure and driving the units compressor.  
Option B.    driving the units compressor.  
Option C.    reducing pressure.  
Correct Answer is.    reducing pressure and driving the units compressor.  
Explanation.    AL/3-24 4.2.2.


Question Number.    52.    Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from.      
Option A.    air supply heated by the pressurising process.  
Option B.    only by adding heat electrically to the air supplies.  
Option C.    driving the units compressor.  
Correct Answer is.    air supply heated by the pressurising process.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-24 4.


Question Number.    53.    A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be.      
Option A.    same as ambient temperature, despite compression heating.  
Option B.    lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating.  
Option C.    a little more than ambient air temperature.  
Correct Answer is.    a little more than ambient air temperature.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    54.    When an aircraft has reached max. diff. and is at constant level (altitude) the system allows for.      
Option A.    pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure.  
Option B.    constant mass flow.  
Option C.    all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.  
Correct Answer is.    constant mass flow.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    55.    The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a.      
Option A.    discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination.  
Option B.    pressure controller/dump valve combination.  
Option C.    pressure controller/discharge valve combination.  
Correct Answer is.    pressure controller/discharge valve combination.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 9.


Question Number.    56.    Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a.      
Option A.    cabin V.S.I.  
Option B.    cabin altimeter.  
Option C.    cabin pressure gauge.  
Correct Answer is.    cabin V.S.I.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 3.


Question Number.    57.    Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative differential pressure not exceeding.      
Option A.    0.5 p.s.i.  
Option B.    1.2 p.s.i.  
Option C.    0.16 p.s.i.  
Correct Answer is.    0.5 p.s.i.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    58.    Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by fitting.      
Option A.    airport altitude selectors.  
Option B.    inwards relief valves.  
Option C.    safety relief valve.  
Correct Answer is.    safety relief valve.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 6.1.


Question Number.    59.    A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by.      
Option A.    expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.  
Option B.    directing compressed air into a heat exchanger.  
Option C.    air supply to the cabin.  
Correct Answer is.    expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-24 4.2.


Question Number.    60.    The function of spill valves is to control.      
Option A.    air supply to the cabin.  
Option B.    cabin pressure differential.  
Option C.    the rate of pressurisation.  
Correct Answer is.    air supply to the cabin.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3.


Question Number.    61.    Pressurisation control ensures that.      
Option A.    at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000 ft.  
Option B.    pressurisation does not start before aircraft is above 8,000 ft.  
Option C.    the cabin is always maintained at sea level.  
Correct Answer is.    at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000 ft.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23.


Question Number.    62.    Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be.      
Option A.    cross connected.  
Option B.    disconnected.  
Option C.    connected.  
Correct Answer is.    connected.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 12.2.5.


Question Number.    63.    If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the.      
Option A.    discharge valve should be adjusted.  
Option B.    pressure controller should be adjusted.  
Option C.    outward relief valve is inoperative.  
Correct Answer is.    pressure controller should be adjusted.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 10.2.2 iv.


Question Number.    64.    When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure differential the.      
Option A.    discharge valve closes.  
Option B.    discharge valve opens.  
Option C.    mass flow ceases through the cabin.  
Correct Answer is.    discharge valve opens.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    65.    The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply system is.      
Option A.    to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower altitudes.  
Option B.    to relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to atmosphere.  
Option C.    to give a heating effect.  
Correct Answer is.    to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower altitudes.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3.


Question Number.    66.    Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressure ground test?.      
Option A.    Yes.  
Option B.    No.  
Option C.    Occasionally.  
Correct Answer is.    Yes.  
Explanation.    AL/3-23 12.3.9.


Question Number.    67.    Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground cabin pressure test?.      
Option A.    Pressure relief valve.  
Option B.    Pressure discharge valve.  
Option C.    Pressure regulator controller.  
Correct Answer is.    Pressure discharge valve.  
Explanation.    AL/3-23 12.3.10.


Question Number.    68.    To what position is the inward relief valve spring loaded?.      
Option A.    Closed.  
Option B.    Both position.  
Option C.    Open.  
Correct Answer is.    Closed.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    69.    A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is.      
Option A.    most desirable because it increases the air-flow.  
Option B.    most undesirable because of the drag created.  
Option C.    not effective in any way.  
Correct Answer is.    most undesirable because of the drag created.  
Explanation.    AL/7-11 3.2.2.


Question Number.    70.    When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system and air is directed around inside the muffler, this is an.      
Option A.    thermal heater.  
Option B.    exhaust heater.  
Option C.    combustion heater.  
Correct Answer is.    exhaust heater.  
Explanation.    AL/3-24 3.3.


Question Number.    71.    Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized aircraft.      
Option A.    to achieve maximum pressure differential.  
Option B.    to allow controlled pressure during descent.  
Option C.    to relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure to be greater.  
Correct Answer is.    to allow controlled pressure during descent.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 5.


Question Number.    72.    In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger cooling air is.      
Option A.    air bled directly from engine or through blower.  
Option B.    ram air from ambient conditions.  
Option C.    bled from cabin air supply duct.  
Correct Answer is.    ram air from ambient conditions.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    73.    A safety valve will normally relieve at.      
Option A.    negative differential pressure.  
Option B.    higher differential pressure than the discharge valve.  
Option C.    lower differential pressure than the discharge valve.  
Correct Answer is.    higher differential pressure than the discharge valve.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    74.    Conditioned air is.      
Option A.    oxygen added.  
Option B.    moisture removed.  
Option C.    temperature and pressure adjusted.  
Correct Answer is.    temperature and pressure adjusted.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    75.    The principle of cabin pressurisation is.      
Option A.    whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin climbs to a lower altitude.  
Option B.    cabin altitude will always maintain a constant differential to that of aircraft altitude.  
Option C.    cabin altitude climbs eventually to that of the aircraft.  
Correct Answer is.    whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin climbs to a lower altitude.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    76.    When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained.      
Option A.    constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin.  
Option B.    the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced.  
Option C.    all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere.  
Correct Answer is.    constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    77.    The function of the mass airflow control valve is to.      
Option A.    ensure that constant airflow out of the cabin is dictated by cabin altitude.  
Option B.    maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude.  
Option C.    ensure system operating pressure is not exceeded.  
Correct Answer is.    maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    78.    Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by.      
Option A.    regulating the mass flow into the cabin.  
Option B.    regulating the position of the inward relief valve.  
Option C.    regulating the position of the outflow valve.  
Correct Answer is.    regulating the position of the outflow valve.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    79.    If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the aircraft is on the ground with squat switches overridden, then the outflow valve will normally.      
Option A.    remain closed.  
Option B.    open.  
Option C.    not operate.  
Correct Answer is.    remain closed.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    80.    Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air conditioning pack?.      
Option A.    Flap position switches.  
Option B.    Throttle switches.  
Option C.    Undercarriage switches.  
Correct Answer is.    Throttle switches.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    81.    When carrying out a ground pressure test, you should use.      
Option A.    a G.P.U. and A.P.U. combination.  
Option B.    the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system.  
Option C.    ground trolley and clean air.  
Correct Answer is.    the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    82.    The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of.      
Option A.    20 percent.  
Option B.    60 percent.  
Option C.    30 percent.  
Correct Answer is.    30 percent.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    83.    In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is from.      
Option A.    ram air at the wing leading edge.  
Option B.    gas turbine intake ram air.  
Option C.    gas turbine compressor bleed air.  
Correct Answer is.    gas turbine compressor bleed air.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    84.    The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at.      
Option A.    20ºC to 24ºC.  
Option B.    12ºC to 18ºC.  
Option C.    18ºC to 24ºC.  
Correct Answer is.    18ºC to 24ºC.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    85.    In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system, the warm air supply is provided by.      
Option A.    the gas turbine exhaust.  
Option B.    the compressor of the gas turbine engine.  
Option C.    the engine exhaust heat.  
Correct Answer is.    the compressor of the gas turbine engine.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    86.    The cabin altitude is.      
Option A.    the actual height of the aircraft above sea level.  
Option B.    the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level.  
Option C.    the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure.  
Correct Answer is.    the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    87.    The cabin differential pressure is.      
Option A.    the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure.  
Option B.    the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level.  
Option C.    the actual height of the aircraft above sea level.  
Correct Answer is.    the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    88.    The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by.      
Option A.    the outflow valves.  
Option B.    the vent valves.  
Option C.    the dump control valves.  
Correct Answer is.    the outflow valves.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    89.    When air is pressurized, the oxygen content.      
Option A.    decreases.  
Option B.    remains constant.  
Option C.    increases.  
Correct Answer is.    increases.  
Explanation.    Oxygen content increases as mass per unit volume, but NOT as a percentage of the other gases in air. Your interpretation of the question may differ.


Question Number.    90.    Cabin pressure differential is the difference between.      
Option A.    ISA conditions and aircraft altitude.  
Option B.    8000 ft. and sea level.  
Option C.    cabin pressure and ambient pressure.  
Correct Answer is.    cabin pressure and ambient pressure.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    91.    In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first.      
Option A.    passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger.  
Option B.    compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine.  
Option C.    passes across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.  
Correct Answer is.    compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    92.    If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin pressure controller and provided maximum cabin pressure differential is not exceeded.      
Option A.    sea level cabin conditions will be maintained to 8000 feet aircraft altitude.  
Option B.    8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet.  
Option C.    8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all aircraft altitudes from sea level.  
Correct Answer is.    8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    93.    If cabin pressure is increasing, the cabin rate of change indicator will show.      
Option A.    zero, provided the rate of change is within the normally accepted limits.  
Option B.    a rate of climb.  
Option C.    a rate of descent.  
Correct Answer is.    a rate of descent.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    94.    A negative differential pressure is prevented by.      
Option A.    a blow off valve.  
Option B.    a spill valve.  
Option C.    an inward relief valve.  
Correct Answer is.    an inward relief valve.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    95.    During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the pressurization system 'ON'.      
Option A.    the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant.  
Option B.    the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure.  
Option C.    the pressurization system does not control pressure until 10,000 ft is reached.  
Correct Answer is.    the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure.  
Explanation.    AL/3-23 Fig 2 Pg 3.


Question Number.    96.    The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin differential of.      
Option A.    +0.5 PSI.  
Option B.    -0.5 PSI.  
Option C.    +9.25 PSI.  
Correct Answer is.    -0.5 PSI.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    97.    The humidity within a passenger cabin should.      
Option A.    not be greater than 40%.  
Option B.    be between 30% and 70%.  
Option C.    not be less than 60%.  
Correct Answer is.    be between 30% and 70%.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    98.    One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is.      
Option A.    by compression of ambient air across a turbine.  
Option B.    by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.  
Option C.    conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.  
Correct Answer is.    conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 770 Fig 16-34.


Question Number.    99.    Rate of change of cabin pressure is.      
Option A.    selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller.  
Option B.    selected by the pilot and controlled by the spill valve.  
Option C.    automatic.  
Correct Answer is.    selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    100.    An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8.5 PSI at cruising altitude. If the ambient pressure is 2.9 PSI, the pressure inside the cabin at cruising altitude would be.      
Option A.    11.4 PSI.  
Option B.    5.6 PSI.  
Option C.    8.5 PSI.  
Correct Answer is.    11.4 PSI.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    101.    Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system.      
Option A.    flush the system with a solvent.  
Option B.    apply suction to remove air and moisture.  
Option C.    pre-heat the system to 100°F.  
Correct Answer is.    apply suction to remove air and moisture.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    102.    Cabin differential is determined only by.      
Option A.    the selected cabin height.  
Option B.    the height at which the aircraft is flying.  
Option C.    the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height.  
Correct Answer is.    the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    103.    The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than.      
Option A.    300 ft/min.  
Option B.    200 ft/min.  
Option C.    25 ft/min.  
Correct Answer is.    25 ft/min.  
Explanation.    BCAR Section D.


Question Number.    104.    An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order to.      
Option A.    maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes.  
Option B.    ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure, thus increasing the fatigue life of the fuselage.  
Option C.    ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression.  
Correct Answer is.    maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    105.    An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order toIf the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft. whilst taxiing and activated the pressurization system, the cabin pressure would.      
Option A.    decrease to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft.  
Option B.    remain at ground level pressure.  
Option C.    decrease to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft.  
Correct Answer is.    remain at ground level pressure.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    106.    A silencer is installed in a pressurization system to reduce.      
Option A.    the noise from the high speed of airflow within the system.  
Option B.    engine noise coming through the ventilators.  
Option C.    the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system.  
Correct Answer is.    the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system.  
Explanation.    AL/3-24 fig 3 and para 2.5.


Question Number.    107.    To avoid discomfort, the rate of change of pressure should be low, particularly.      
Option A.    when cabin pressure is decreasing.  
Option B.    during descent.  
Option C.    during ascent.  
Correct Answer is.    during descent.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    108.    In the case of a vapour cycle cooling, system heat is removed from the charge air by.      
Option A.    changing a liquid into a vapour.  
Option B.    reducing the pressure of a vapour.  
Option C.    changing a vapour into a liquid.  
Correct Answer is.    changing a liquid into a vapour.  
Explanation.    AL/3-24 para 13.3.2.


Question Number.    109.    An inward relief valve will operate.      
Option A.    when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure.  
Option B.    when climbing with pressurization OFF.  
Option C.    after an aircraft has landed, to restore ground level conditions is the cabin.  
Correct Answer is.    when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure.  
Explanation.    AL/3-23 6.2.


Question Number.    110.    If an aircraft is operating at 40,000 ft. the pressurization ensures that.      
Option A.    the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10,000 ft.  
Option B.    the cabin pressure is progressively increased until the operational height is reached.  
Option C.    sea level pressure is maintained in the cabin.  
Correct Answer is.    the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10,000 ft.  
Explanation.    NIL.


Question Number.    111.    The pressure controller activates.      
Option A.    the blower or compressor.  
Option B.    the cabin discharge valve.  
Option C.    the spill valve.  
Correct Answer is.    the cabin discharge valve.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    112.    When cruising near the operational ceiling, the flight altitude set on the pressurization control panel may be 500 ft. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent.      
Option A.    safety valve operation.  
Option B.    inward relief valve operation.  
Option C.    pressure controller hunting.  
Correct Answer is.    pressure controller hunting.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    113.    The cabin rate of climb is shown.      
Option A.    as being inside or outside limits by green and red lights, a gauge being used.  
Option B.    by a differential scale on the aircraft rate of climb indicator.  
Option C.    on a specific indicator.  
Correct Answer is.    on a specific indicator.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    114.    A water separator would be installed in a pressurization system to.      
Option A.    collect any rain accompanying the ram air.  
Option B.    extract surplus water from the charge air.  
Option C.    extract water from the cabin air before it is discharged to atmosphere.  
Correct Answer is.    extract surplus water from the charge air.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    115.    Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system flows to the.      
Option A.    inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger.  
Option B.    fan.  
Option C.    turbine.  
Correct Answer is.    fan.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    116.    The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by.      
Option A.    engine bleed air or blower air.  
Option B.    air bled from the main cabin supply duct.  
Option C.    ambient ram air.  
Correct Answer is.    ambient ram air.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    117.    The effective temperature of a cabin is given by.      
Option A.    temperature, humidity, thermal inertia and heat load.  
Option B.    temperature and humidity.  
Option C.    temperature only.  
Correct Answer is.    temperature and humidity.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    118.    An inward relief valve is installed in a pressurization system to ensure that the pressure hull of an aircraft is not subjected to.      
Option A.    too high an internal pressure.  
Option B.    forces which would cause the aircraft to explode.  
Option C.    a high negative differential pressure.  
Correct Answer is.    a high negative differential pressure.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    119.    In most pressurization systems, the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is.      
Option A.    constant at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes.  
Option B.    variable, depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector.  
Option C.    reasonably constant irrespective of altitude.  
Correct Answer is.    reasonably constant irrespective of altitude.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    120.    When dissipating heat in a vapour cycle system.      
Option A.    vapour converts to a liquid.  
Option B.    liquid converts to a vapour.  
Option C.    the liquid sublimates.  
Correct Answer is.    vapour converts to a liquid.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    121.    International markings for air conditioning pipelines are.      
Option A.    triangles.  
Option B.    rectangles.  
Option C.    dots.  
Correct Answer is.    dots.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    122.    Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin altitude by control of.      
Option A.    outflow valve position.  
Option B.    cabin mass air flow.  
Option C.    inward relief valve position.  
Correct Answer is.    outflow valve position.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    123.    A cabin humidifier is operated.      
Option A.    on the ground.  
Option B.    at low altitudes.  
Option C.    at high altitudes.  
Correct Answer is.    at high altitudes.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    124.    In an air conditioning system, heat is added to the air by.      
Option A.    restricting duct outlets.  
Option B.    restricting compressor outlet.  
Option C.    restricting compressor inlet.  
Correct Answer is.    restricting compressor outlet.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    125.    Ditching control is used for.      
Option A.    rapid aircraft depressurisation.  
Option B.    closing all valves and inlets.  
Option C.    deploying life rafts.  
Correct Answer is.    closing all valves and inlets.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    126.    The purpose of a mass flow controller is to.      
Option A.    ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times.  
Option B.    allow pilot to select the desired cabin altitude.  
Option C.    ensure the cabin altitude remains constant during cruise at all altitudes.  
Correct Answer is.    ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    127.    Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control is catered for by.      
Option A.    inwards relief valve.  
Option B.    spill valves.  
Option C.    cabin safety relief valves.  
Correct Answer is.    cabin safety relief valves.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    128.    A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will.      
Option A.    decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air.  
Option B.    not affect the charge air pressure.  
Option C.    increase the pressure but decrease the temperature.  
Correct Answer is.    decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.


Question Number.    129.    How much air is required for the Flight Deck?.      
Option A.    10 lbs/minute.  
Option B.    Whatever the captain sets.  
Option C.    10 cubic feet/minute.  
Correct Answer is.    10 cubic feet/minute.  
Explanation.    A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.

11.05.1. Instruments/Avionic Systems - Instrument Systems (ATA 31).


Question Number.    1.    Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?.      
Option A.    Machmeter.  
Option B.    VSI.  
Option C.    ASI.  
Correct Answer is.    VSI.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    2.    Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at.      
Option A.    2 500 ft radio alt.  
Option B.    1 000 ft radio alt.  
Option C.    10 000 ft radio alt.  
Correct Answer is.    2 500 ft radio alt.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 223.  


Question Number.    3.    What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?.      
Option A.    500 ft.  
Option B.    2,500 ft.  
Option C.    10,000 ft.  
Correct Answer is.    2,500 ft.  
Explanation.    Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin p323-324.  


Question Number.    4.    An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-.      
Option A.    Aircraft on the ground with one engine running.  
Option B.    Aircraft in the air with both engines running.  
Option C.    Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on.  
Correct Answer is.    Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on.  
Explanation.    Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 391.  


Question Number.    5.    Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?.      
Option A.    Altimeter.  
Option B.    vertical speed indicator.  
Option C.    Air speed indicator.  
Correct Answer is.    Altimeter.  
Explanation.    Altimeter is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes.  


Question Number.    6.    The runway heading is.      
Option A.    QFU.  
Option B.    QDM.  
Option C.    QDR.  
Correct Answer is.    QFU.  
Explanation.    NIL.    http://www2.tky.3web.ne.jp/~jahfa/kokuningen/Q.html


Question Number.    7.    Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of.      
Option A.    tan of latitude.  
Option B.    cos of latitude.  
Option C.    sin of latitude.  
Correct Answer is.    cos of latitude.  
Explanation.    Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 103.  


Question Number.    8.    A machmeter works.      
Option A.    always.  
Option B.    above 10,000 ft.  
Option C.    always except on the ground.  
Correct Answer is.    always.  
Explanation.    Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 45.  


Question Number.    9.    Radio marker information is displayed on.      
Option A.    ADI.  
Option B.    EICAS.  
Option C.    HIS.  
Correct Answer is.    ADI.  
Explanation.    Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 358.  


Question Number.    10.    Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to.      
Option A.    move probe down.  
Option B.    move probe up.  
Option C.    move probe laterally.  
Correct Answer is.    move probe up.  
Explanation.    Move probe up, closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point, so it operates sooner.  


Question Number.    11.    Where is alpha angle used?.      
Option A.    IRS.  
Option B.    Accelerometer.  
Option C.    Angle of attack.  
Correct Answer is.    Angle of attack.  
Explanation.    Aircraft Instrument and Integrated Systems - Pallett Page 73.  


Question Number.    12.    Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?.      
Option A.    Outer gimbal.  
Option B.    Rotating vane.  
Option C.    Inner gimbal.  
Correct Answer is.    Inner gimbal.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    13.    On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would.      
Option A.    align the aircraft onto its A coefficient so that no error is induced.  
Option B.    fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from.  
Option C.    carry out a check swing after fitment.  
Correct Answer is.    fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    14.    In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?.      
Option A.    1013.25.  
Option B.    QNH.  
Option C.    QFE.  
Correct Answer is.    1013.25.  
Explanation.    1013.25 mb or QNE. A & P Technician Airframe Textbook Chap III page 592.  


Question Number.    15.    Vibration monitoring signals are sent.      
Option A.    via a signal conditioner to the gauge.  
Option B.    via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge.  
Option C.    direct to the gauge.  
Correct Answer is.    via a signal conditioner to the gauge.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen Aircraft Instruments and Avionics Page 90.  


Question Number.    16.    The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is from.      
Option A.    zero and minus.  
Option B.    ambient and minus.  
Option C.    zero and positive.  
Correct Answer is.    ambient and minus.  
Explanation.    The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient.  


Question Number.    17.    A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. This is to.      
Option A.    prevent FOD ingestion.  
Option B.    dampen sudden pressure changes.  
Option C.    allow for calibration.  
Correct Answer is.    dampen sudden pressure changes.  
Explanation.    The restriction is to damp out surges in pressure.  


Question Number.    18.    The hot junction of thermocouple is.      
Option A.    in the combustion chamber.  
Option B.    in the instrument.  
Option C.    aft of combustion chamber.  
Correct Answer is.    aft of combustion chamber.  
Explanation.    The hot junction is the sensor, aft of the combustion chamber.  


Question Number.    19.    When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to the display?.      
Option A.    Rad. alt. flag in view.  
Option B.    Rad. alt. goes out of view.  
Option C.    Error warning in view.  
Correct Answer is.    Rad. alt. goes out of view.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 195.  


Question Number.    20.    Pitot tubes are heated.      
Option A.    by compressed bleed air.  
Option B.    electrically.  
Option C.    by kinetic heating.  
Correct Answer is.    electrically.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/10-1 Para 3.2.  


Question Number.    21.    The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is.      
Option A.    above zero pressure.  
Option B.    below ambient pressure.  
Option C.    above ambient pressure.  
Correct Answer is.    below ambient pressure.  
Explanation.    The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient.  


Question Number.    22.    What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?.      
Option A.    Yellow, cyan, magenta.  
Option B.    Red, blue, green.  
Option C.    Red, blue, yellow.  
Correct Answer is.    Red, blue, green.  
Explanation.    Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 290.  


Question Number.    23.    Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________ ________________ when close to stall.      
Option A.    flap position.  
Option B.    fast/slow switch.  
Option C.    thrust levers.  
Correct Answer is.    thrust levers.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    24.    When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a quick release disconnect connection is disturbed.      
Option A.    a full test of the system should be carried out.  
Option B.    a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so.  
Option C.    the allowances for the system should be halved.  
Correct Answer is.    a full test of the system should be carried out.  
Explanation.    NIL.    http://www2.eur-rvsm.com/library.htm PAra.8.3


Question Number.    25.    For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for the system would be.      
Option A.    +/- 300 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument errors.  
Option B.    +/- 500 feet for the system overall.  
Option C.    +/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error.  
Correct Answer is.    +/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error.  
Explanation.    NIL.    http://www2.eur-rvsm.com/library.htm PAra.8.3


Question Number.    26.    The HSI provides information on.      
Option A.    VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude.  
Option B.    VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar.  
Option C.    VOR, ILS, plan, attitude.  
Correct Answer is.    VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar.  
Explanation.    Attitude is on the EADI.  


Question Number.    27.    The sensing element of the flux valve.      
Option A.    aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns.  
Option B.    remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure.  
Option C.    aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised.  
Correct Answer is.    remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure.  
Explanation.    Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals Page 106-110.  


Question Number.    28.    In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error - 2 degrees. The coefficient C is.      
Option A.    +2 degrees.  
Option B.    -2 degrees.  
Option C.    0 degrees.  
Correct Answer is.    0 degrees.  
Explanation.    AL/10-5 page 6 table 1 (-2)-(-2)/2 = 0.  


Question Number.    29.    When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is.      
Option A.    5 degrees.  
Option B.    1 degrees.  
Option C.    3 degrees.  
Correct Answer is.    5 degrees.  
Explanation.    CAIPs AL/10-5 9 note.  


Question Number.    30.    The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with.      
Option A.    spirit level.  
Option B.    an inclinometer.  
Option C.    micrometer.  
Correct Answer is.    an inclinometer.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    31.    What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?.      
Option A.    Tied down.  
Option B.    Displacement.  
Option C.    Space.  
Correct Answer is.    Tied down.  
Explanation.    AL/10-2 A rate gyro has only 2 axis of freedom. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallett page 129.  


Question Number.    32.    A radio altimeter system can be self tested.      
Option A.    both on the ground only and in the air.  
Option B.    on the ground only.  
Option C.    in the air only.  
Correct Answer is.    both on the ground only and in the air.  
Explanation.    NIL.  


Question Number.    33.    The apparent wander for directional gyros is.      
Option A.    compensated by applying a constant torque.  
Option B.    maximum at the pole.  
Option C.    dependant on longitude.  
Correct Answer is.    compensated by applying a constant torque.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    34.    The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for.      
Option A.    erection.  
Option B.    toppling.  
Option C.    drift.  
Correct Answer is.    drift.  
Explanation.    Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 192.      


Question Number.    35.    Random drift of a gyro is caused by.      
Option A.    error in roll when aircraft is turning.  
Option B.    aircraft turning with an error in roll.  
Option C.    gyro friction and unbalance.  
Correct Answer is.    gyro friction and unbalance.  
Explanation.    Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 104.      


Question Number.    36.    Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence.      
Option A.    when 90 degrees apart.  
Option B.    when parallel to each other.  
Option C.    when 45 degrees apart.  
Correct Answer is.    when 90 degrees apart.  
Explanation.    Angle between flinders bars determines their correcting influence.      


Question Number.    37.    With engine static and engine blanks fitted, EPR gauge reads just above 1.      
Option A.    Gauge requires re-calibration.  
Option B.    Transmitter is unserviceable.  
Option C.    This is normal.  
Correct Answer is.    Gauge requires re-calibration.  
Explanation.    NIL.      


Question Number.    38.    Coefficient A is adjusted.      
Option A.    at 360 degrees.  
Option B.    at 270 degrees.  
Option C.    on any heading.  
Correct Answer is.    on any heading.  
Explanation.    AL/10-5 9.2.7.      


Question Number.    39.    With an aircraft which has more than one compass system.      
Option A.    master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card.  
Option B.    both are adjusted on each heading.  
Option C.    master and slave adjusted, correction card for master only.  
Correct Answer is.    master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card.  
Explanation.    Al/10-5 9.2 Note.      


Question Number.    40.    A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?.      
Option A.    20 inches.  
Option B.    24 inches.  
Option C.    So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass.  
Correct Answer is.    24 inches.  
Explanation.    AL/10-5 9.2.      


Question Number.    41.    Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?.      
Option A.    Upper.  
Option B.    Lower.  
Option C.    Both.  
Correct Answer is.    Upper.  
Explanation.    NIL.    http://www.b737.org.uk/probes.htm  


Question Number.    42.    On the CWP, what does amber indicate?.      
Option A.    Present status.  
Option B.    Cautionary info.  
Option C.    Warning.  
Correct Answer is.    Cautionary info.  
Explanation.    NIL.      

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